Mcq part 10

Q.Narrowband UVB is effective for psoriasis and can be used in pregnancy and in childhood. It is also less carcinogenic than PUVA. The wavelength of narrowband UVB is:

A. 311-312nm

B. 315-317nm

C. 300-302nm

D. 318-320nm

E. 317-319nm

ANS: A

Q.Fluorescent UVA bulbs used for phototesting or PUVA therapy have a peak emission at:

A. 254 nm

B. 311 nm

C. 312 nm

D. 352 nm

E. 468 nm

ANS: D

Q.What bacteria may play a role in the pathogenesis of Morphea?

A. B. burgdorferi

B. H. pylori

C. E. coli

D. S. aureus

E. S. enteritidis

ANS: A

Q.Which HLA type is more commonly associated with balnitis circinata ?

A. HLA-B7

B. HLA-B15

C. HLA-B27

D. HLA-B51

E. HLA-DR4

ANS: C

Q.Human orf, also known as ecthyma contagiosum, was diagnosed in a 43 year old farmer by an astute resident dermatologist. Patient presented with a dome shaped, firm bulla with an umbilicated crust. Which of the following virus is responsible?

A. Pox virus

B. HHV-8

C. Parapox virus

D. HPV 5,8

E. Mycobacterium bovis

ANS: C

Q.A child presents with a 1 cm yellow-red nodule on the face. Pathology shows Touton giant cells.

What is the most frequent site of extracutaneous involvement in this disease?

A. Eye

B. Lung

C. Bone

D. CNS

E. Visceral

ANS: A

Q.Mast cells are derived from bone marrow ____+ cells?

A. CD3

B. CD6

C. CD20

D. CD34

E. CD68

ANS: D

Q.Sebaceous glands:

A. Respond to chemical stimuli such as hormones

B. Respond to cholinergic neural activity, exclusively

C. Respond to adrenergic neural activity, exclusively

D. Respond to both adrenergic and cholinergic stimuli

E. Respond to the local release of cytokines from inflammatory cells

ANS: A

Q.Retinoids upregulate transcription of which types of collagen?

A. 1 and 3

B. 1 and 4

C. 1 and 7

D. 3 and 7

E. 4 and 7

ANS: C

Q.Defects in what kind of structural protein lead to pyloric atresia associated with junctional

epidermolysis bullosa:

A. Collagen

B. Elastin

C. Loricrin

D. Integrin

E. Plectin

ANS: D

Q.Meibomian glands are:

A. Eccrine glands localized to the vermillion

border of the lips

B. Sebaceous glands found on the areola of the

breast

C. Sebaceous glands found on the eyelids

D. Apocrine glands found in the anogenital

regions

ANS: C

Q.Length of cochlea is

A.30 mmm

B.20 mm

C.10 mm

D.5 mm

ANS: A

Q.Bony labrynth ossified from how many centers

A.14

B.13

C.12

D .10

ANS: A

Q.Which of the following are seen in fracture temporal bone

A.racoon sign

B.battle sign

C.hemotympanum

D all

ANS: A

Q.AURICLE develops from

A. 1st arch

B. 2nd arch

C. Both

D. All pharyngeal arches

ANS: C

Q.Buttock sign is seen in

A. Congenital aural atresia sx

B. Cochlear implant sx

C. Acoustic neuroma sx

D. Glomus jugulare sx

ANS: A

Q.Tt of choice for AFRS?

A. STEROIDS

B. SX

C. ANTIFUNGAL

D. ANTIHISTAMINES

ANS: B

Q.What is criteria used for AFRS

A. BENT AND KUHN CRITERIA

B. SCHFERDOUSERS CRITERIA

C. DENDY CRITERIA

D. ALL

ANS: A

Mcq part 9

1. 
   

• 
• 
  
• 
  
• Q.All of the following can be seen in trachoma except
• A)follicular conjunctivitis
• B)Taranta‘s spots
• C)Herbert‘s pits
• D)conjunctival scarring
• 
  
• ANS:B 
• 
  
• Q.Superior tarsal muscle is supplied by the :
• A)Third cranial nerve
• B)Sympathetic nerve fibres
• C)Parasympathetic nerve fibres
• D)Seventh cranial nerve
• 
  
• ANS: B 
• 
  
• Q.Sceleral buckling is done in
• A)Proliferative diabetic retinopathy
• B)Retina detachment
• C)Retinal edema
• D)Retinal hemorrhage
• 
  
• ANS: B 
• 
  
• Q.Earliest finding in diabetic retinopathy is
• A)Micro aneurysm
• B)Macro aneurysm
• C)Both of above
• D)None of above
• 
  
• ANS: A 
• 
  
• Q.Major complication of trachoma that can cause blinding is
• A)Follicles formation
• B)Corneal scaring and entropion
• C)Papillary hypertrophy
• D)Corneal scaring and ectropion
• 
  
• ANS: B 
• 
  
• Q.Glaucoma mainly involves
• A)Central 30 degree field loss
• B)Central 60 degree field loss
• C)Peripheral 30 degree field loss
• D)Peripheral 60 degree field loss
• 
  
• ANS: A 
• 
  
• Q.Bence-jones protein is a type of:
• A)heavy chain protein
• B)delta protein
• C)light chain protein
• D)gamma protein
• 
  
• ANS: C
• 
  
• Q.Age-sex trend in population can be shown by:
• A)histogram
• B)population pyramid
• C)percentage
• D)graph 
• 
  
• ANS: B
• 
  
• Q.What is the significant bacterial count in a urine sample obtained from suprapubic puncture?
• A)> 1000/hpf
• B)> 100/hpf
• C)> 10/hpf
• D)single cell/hpf 
• 
  
• ANS: D
• 
  
• Q.What is the major constituent of sewage?
• A)Inorganic waste
• B)H2O
• C)nitrogenous waste
• D)NO2
• 
  
• ANS: B 
• 
  
• Q.Enzymatic digestion is seen in : 
• A)coagulation necrosis
• B)liquefaction necrosis
• C)fat necrosis
• D)none
• 
  
• ANS: A
• 
  
• Q.If in a family one of the parents died or left the family, then it is: 
• A)family problem
• B)single parent family
• C)broken family
• D)all 
• 
  
• ANS: C
• 
  
• Q.The specific marker for MI:
• A)LDH
• B)CPK MB
• C)SGOT
• D)troponin I and T
• 
  
• ANS: D 
• 
  
• Q.Which of the following is wrong about juvenile diabetes?
• A)Insulitis
• B)significant family history
• C)ketosis
• D)insulin needed
• 
  
• ANS: B 
• 
  
• Q.During fasting, all of the following substances are utilized for gluconeogenesis except:
• A)pyruvate
• B)lactate
• C)glycerol
• D)acetyl coA
• 
  
• ANS: D 
• 
  
• Q.Best drug for treatment of vomiting in pregnancy is:
• A)cyclizine
• B)promethazine
• C)domperidone
• D)pethidine
• 
  
• ANS: B 
• 
  
• Q.Stroke volume reflects:
• A)length of muscle
• B)contractility of muscle
• C)both
• D)none
• 
  
• ANS: C 
• 
  
• Q.Neutropenia is commonly not seen in:
• A)SLE
• B)DLE
• C)aplastic anemia
• D)none
• 
  
• ANS: B 
• 
  
• Q.Alkaline phosphatase is not raised in:
• A)osteoporosis
• B)osteodystrophy
• C)fractures
• D)osteomalacia
• 
  
• ANS: A 
• 
  
• Q.Which of the following drugs is not a dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor?
• A)pyrimethamine
• B)sulfamethoxazole
• C)cotrimoxazole
• D)all
• 
  
• ANS: B

Mcq part 8

10% Formaldehyde is used for sending Biopsy specimens,Why?

A.Sterilisation
B.To prevent autolysis
C. TO stain cells
D. TO denature proteins
E.autolysis of cell

ANS: E


Q . The analytical study where population is the unit of  
study is: 
A . Cross sectional 
B . Ecological 
C . Case-control 
D . Cohort 

ANS: B

Q .Residence of three villages with three different types  
of water supply were asked to participate in a study  
to identify cholera carriers. Because several cholera  
deaths had occurred in the recent past, virtually  
everyone present at the time submitted to examination.  
The proportion of residents in each village who were  
carriers was computed and compared. This study is a: 
A . Cross- sectional study 
B . Case-control study 
C . Concurrent cohort study 
D . Non-concurrent 

ANS: A

Q . All of the following are quantitative variables except: 
A . Serum cholesterol
B . Weight 
C . Gender 
D . Celsius temperature scale 

ANS: C

Q . Histogram is used to present which kind of the data: 
A . Nominal 
B . Continous 
C . Discrete 
D . Any of above 

ANS: B

Q . Measurement of blood pressure is which type of data: 
A . Nominal 
B . Ordinal  
C . Interval 
D . Continous 

ANS: D

Q . Which of the following variables is measured on the oridinal scale?   
A . Type of anemia 
B . Severity of anemia 
C . Hemoglobin level 
D . Serum ferritin level 

ANS: B

Q . Histogram is used to describe:  
A . Quantitative data of a group of patients 
B . Qualitative data of a group of patients  
C . Data collected on nominal scale 
D . Data collected on ordinal scale 

ANS : A

Q .True regarding autism is:-
A . A metabolic disorder
B . Caused due to teratogenic drugs
C . Impaired reciprocal social and interpersonal interaction
D . Neuro developmental disorder 

ANS: C

Q . All of the following are true for Korsakoff s psychosis except:-
A . Organic amnestic slmdrome
B . Loss of insight
C . Deficiency of cyanocobalamin
D . It may follow wernicke's encephalopathy

ANS: C

Q . Which of the following is not true about hallucination?
A . It is a disorder of perception
B . It is always pathological
C . It is different from imagery
D . It occurs on objective space

ANS: B

Q . Geographic cough is seen in?
A . Asthma,
B . Histoplasmosis
C . Occupational exposure,
D . Gastroesophageal reflux

ANS: B

Q . Abdominal approach is used in?
A. Thiersch operation
B. Delorme’s operation
C. Altemier’s procedure
D. Ripstein’s operation

ANS: D

Q . ALL ARE TRUE REGARDING HEPATITIS C INFECTION EXCEPT? 
All are true regarding hepatitis C infection except?
A. Serum transaminase level is a good predictor of the level of liver fibrosis
B. Telaprevir is effective in management
C. 3% risk of vertical transmission
D. Sharing toothbrushes is a risk factor for transmission

ANS: A

Q . The cause of Postpartum blues is:
A. Decreased progesterone
B. Increased prolactin
C. Decreased estrogen
D. Decreased estrogen and progesterone

ANS: D

Q . Latent phase of labour ends at cervical dilatation of:
A. 1–2 cm
B. 2–3 cm
C. 3–5 cm
D. 7–8 cm

ANS: C

Q . Nucleus ambiguus does not include:
A. VIth Nerve nucleus
B. IXth Nerve nucleus
C. Xth Nerve nucleus
D. XI Nerve nucleus

ANS: A

Q .Intraocular muscle supplied by Edinger Westphal nucleus:
A. Ciliary muscle
B. Superior oblique
C. Lateral rectus
D. Medial rectus

ANS: A

Q . Inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is due to which of the following?
A. K+ influx
B. Na+ influx
C. Ca++ influx
D. Cl- influx

ANS: D

Q . All of the following mechanisms might account for a reduced risk of upper genital tract infection in users of progestin releasing IUDs, except:
A. Reduced retrograde menstruation
B. Decreased ovulation
C. Thickened cervical mucus
D. Decidual changes in the endometrium

ANS: B

Q . Quantity of water available per capita considered adequate to meet the needs of all urban domestic purposes?
A. 100-150 L
B. 150-200 L
C. 200-250 L
D. 250-300 L

ANS: B

mcq part 7

Mnemonicsmed mcq part 7

Q.Heat rupture is characterized by

a) Regular margins

b) Irregular margins

c) Ruptured blood vessels

d) Ruptured red blood cells

ANS: B

Q.The most recent advance in non-invasive cardiac output monitoring is use of:

A)PA catheter

B)Thermo-dilution technique

C)Echocardiography

D)Electrical impedance cardio-graph technology

ANS: C  

Q.The most likely diagnosis in a new born who has radio-opaque shadow with an air -fluid level in the chest along with hemi-vertebra of the 6th thoracic vertebra on plain x-ray is-

A)Congenital diaphragmatic hernia

B)Esophageal duplication cyst

C)Bronchogenic cyst

D)Staphylococcal pneumonia

ANS: A 

Q.Which of the following imaging modalities is most sensitive for evaluation of extra adrenal pheochromocytoma?

A)USG

B)CT

C)MRI

D)MIGB Scan

ANS: D 

Q.Which of the following imaging modality is most sensitive to detect early renal tuberculosis?

A)IV urography

B)Ultrasound

C)Computed tomography

D)MRI

ANS: A 

Q.Native T cell get activated by 

A)NK cell 

B)Dendritic cell 

C)Macrophage 

D)B lymphocytes

ANS: C 

Q.Immuno-histochemistry marker to differentiate thymoma from ALL is 

A)CD1a

B)TdT

C)Cyto-keratin

D)CD3

ANS: B 

Q.In apoptosis, all are seen except: 

A)Intact plasma membrane

B)Absence of Inflammation

C)Cellular Swelling

D)Programmed cell death

ANS: C 

Q.Immune privilege site is 

A)Optic nerve 

B)Seminiferous tubule 

C)Area postrema 

D)Spinal cord

ANS: B

 Q.Which of the following is correct regarding T3 and T4 acting on THR? 

A)It activates Phospholipase A

B)It acts as a transcription factor

C)It acts by increasing cAMP

D)It is a tyrosine kinase receptor

ANS: B 

Q.Dapsone is used as anti-bacterial, antifungal and as an immuno-modulator. What is the mechanism behind all these actions?

A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition

B)Folic acid synthesis inhibition

C)Protein synthesis inhibition

D)PABA inhibition

ANS: B 

Q.Active metabolite of nitropruside act 

A)Phospho-kinase 1, 2

B)Guanylyl cyclase

C)Phospholipase A

D)Phospholipase C

ANS: B 

Q.Phase I trial is done to test 

A)Safety

B)Efficacy

C)Dose

D)Pharmacokinetics

ANS: A 

Q.Of the following drugs increase bleeding when given to a patient on Warfarin except: 

A)Isoniazid

B)Amiodarone

C)Carbamazepine

D)Cimetidine

ANS: C 

Q. If carbamazepine is added to valproate, which of the following side-effect increases? 

A)Thrombocytopenia

B)Hepatotoxicity

C)Hyper-ammonemia

D)Pancreatitis

ANS: B 

Q.Schedule of drug to be sold only on prescription is 

A)H

B)P

C)G

D)X

ANS: A 

Q.Morphine should not be given in 

A)Ischemic pain

B)Cancer pain

C)Biliary colic

D)Postoperative pain

ANS: C 

Q.Which of the following drug causes gynecomastia and nephrolithiasis? 

A)Lamivudine

B)Indinavir

C)Ketoconazole

D)Zidovudine

ANS: C

Q.Which one of the following is gametocidal Bfor all malarial parasite species? 

A)Quinine

B)Chloroquine

C)Primaquine

D)None

ANS: C

Q.Lithium use in pregnancy leads to which effect on baby? 

A)CVS defect

B)Urogenital defect

C)Neural tube defect

D)Facial defects

ANS: A 

Q.Which of the following drug is used to prevent acute mountain sickness? 

A)Acetazolamide

B)Dexamethasone

C)Diltiazem

D)Digoxin

ANS: A

Mnemonicsmed Mcqs part 6

Mnemonicsmed Mcqs

 A 27-year-old man has been maintained on 300mg of clozapine for treatment-refractory schizophrenia. He had responded well to it and had been free of positive symptoms until the last three weeks when he developed the same symptoms again. The patient denies noncompliance and his family confirmed that he has been taking his medication as advised.
Which one of these is the most appropriate immediate step in his management?
A)Obtain clozapine serum levels
B)Enquire about smoking status
C)Add augmentation agent
D)Increase the dose of clozapine
E)Evaluate psychosocial stressors

ANS: A

Q.A 21-year-old girl presents with inability to produce voice. She developed this after a fight with her in-laws and husband. There is no indication of head injury and collateral information obtained is consistent with this. Physical and neurological examination is within normal limit.
What test is best at this stage to ascertain whether the loss of speech is due to neurological injury or functional neurological symptom disorder?
A)Magnetic resonance imaging
B)Electromyography
C)Request a cough
D)Nerve conduction studies
E)Head-up-tilt test

ANS: C

Q.A ladypresented to emergency with altered sensorium and hypotension. She is taking antidepressant medications. ECG shows wide QRS complex and right axis deviation. What should be given for management of this patient?
A)I.V sodium bicarbonate 
B)Wait and watch 
C)Physostigmine 
D)Antiarrhythmic

ANS: A

Q.3 yr old girl has delayed developmental milestone, delayed speech, difficultyin concentrating on studies, plays with herself & does not make friends. Diagnosis is
A)Autism 
B)ADHD
C)Specific learning disorder 
D)Mental retardation

ANS: A

Q.Naltrexone is used in opioid dependence to
A)Prevent respiratory depression 
B)Prevent relapse
C)Treat withdrawal symptoms
D)Detoxification of opioid overdose

ANS: D

Q.A 6-year-old boy presented with a history of not making friends with other children. Further history revealed that he was also not attached to his parents, he was interested in playing with himself only. In addition, he shows repetitive head banging, and hand wringing. It is also noted he gets agitated if his routine is changed. There is history of birth asphyxia. The most possible diagnosis is
A)Rett's syndrome 
B)Autistic disorder 
C)Conduct disorder 
D)Schizophrenia

ANS: B

Q. A patient after starting on treatment with haloperidol presents with hyperthermia,confusion and sweating. Examination shows labile blood pressure and increased muscle tone. The most appropriate investigations to be done here are
A)CT brain and hemogram 
B)Hb%, Serum electrolytes. 
C)ECG, chest X-ray and Hb% 
D)Hemogram, CPK and renal function tests

ANS: D

Q.Confabulation means
A)Misinterpretation of stimulus by one of the special sense organs
B)Perception in absence of a stimulus
C)Making stories to fill in the gaps caused by memory loss
D)None of the above

ANS: C

Q.A married female patient aged 24 years presents to the emergency with history of short lasting episode of behavioral changes and unresponsiveness in which she is agitated, accompanied by smacking of the lips, and thrashing movements
of the limbs. On recovery the patient is not able to recall the episode. Further history does not reveal any stressors. The most likely diagnosis is
A)Chorea gravidarum 
B)Temporal lobe epilepsy
C)Panic attacks 
D)Dissociative disorder

ANS: B

Q.A patient after starting on treatment with haloperidol presents with hyperthermia,confusion and sweating. Examination shows labile blood pressure and increased muscle tone. The most appropriate investigations to be done here are
A)CT brain and hemogram 
B)Hb%, Serum electrolytes.
C)ECG, chest X-ray and Hb% 
D)Hemogram, CPK and renal function tests

ANS: D


Q.A 35 year old male was found by the police wandering in a city. He was unable to give information on his home address or other family members. He appeared to be well groomed, and would be able to converse with others. On examination, there was no medical illness or presence of psychotic symptoms.

Urine screening revealed negative for any psychoactive substances. Most likely diagnosis is
A)Dissociative fugue 
B)Dissociative amnesia
C)Schizophrenia 
D)Dementia

ANS. : A

Q.Anaesthesia for ECT was previously induced with 
_, a short-acting barbiturate. However, this agent became increasingly difficult to obtain, and _is the most widely used alternative. This injection can be painful, and it can also decrease seizure length and delay or abolish convulsions.  may be preferred in patients in whom it is difficult to induce a seizure.

ANS: methohexital/propofol/ketamine

Horseshoe Kidney

Fascinating specimen of a horseshoe kidney!!
This is the most common renal anomaly, occurs in one of every 400. 
Horseshoe kidney is a rental fusion anomaly that consists of two distinct functioning kidneys on each side of the midline, connected at the lower poles by an isthmus (the fused part) of functioning renal parenchyma or fibrous tissue that crosses the midline of the body.
Fusion is thought to occur before the kidneys ascend from the pelvis to their normal dorsolumbar position. This is usually between the 5th and 9th weeks of gestation.
It often presents together with other congenital anomalies, particularly ureteral and collecting system abnormalities. 
Horseshoe kidneys are, in themselves, asymptomatic and thus they are usually identified incidentally (eg, routine ultrasound).
They are however prone to a number of complications as a result of poor drainage, which may lead to clinical presentation such as pain and/or hematuria due to obstruction or infection. They are at increased risk for infection because of the increased likelihood of urinary stasis. 
Also susceptibility of trauma and risk of development of renal calculi and transitional cell carcinoma of the renal pelvis.
The majority of patients have an excellent prognosis without any therapeutic intervention.
It is however important to recognise their presence prior to abdominal surgery or renal intervention for one of their many complications.

Mcq part:6

MCQs By Mnemonicsmed Group

.Carboluria is seen in acute poisoning with
A.Nitric acid
B.Phenol
C.Oxalic acid
D.Sulphuric acid

ANS : B

Q.Causes of iron deficiency anemia EXCEPT
A.CRF
B.Young male
C.Celiac sprue
D.Hook worm
E.Carcinoma cecum

ANS: B

Q.Which of the following is the type of joint present b/w stapes and incus
A.Primary cartilaginous
B.Saddle synovial
C.Secondary cartilaginous
D.Ball and socket synovial

ANS: D

Q. Rapid urease positive test is done in
A.Helicobacter pylori
B.Staphylococcus aureus
C.Klebsiella
D.Streptococcus

ANS: A

Q.Most common pattern of fingerprint is
A.Whorls
B.Loops
C.Composite
D.Arches

ANS: B

Q.The auricle develops from
A.1st branchial cleft
B.1st branchial arch
C.1st & 2nd branchial arch
D.1st,2nd,3rd branchial arch

ANS: C

Q.Absence of lacrimation is seen in which nerve injury
A.Nasociliary nerve
B.Greater petrosal nerve
C.Supraorbital nerve

ANS: B

Q.Which of the following is developed from the mesogastrium of stomach
A.Liver
B.Pancreas
C.Spleen
D.Kidney

ANS: C

Q. What is the Neutrophil count of moderate neutropenia
A.<500/mm3
B.100/mm3
C.500-1000/mm3
D.>1000/mm3

ANS: C

Q.Side effects of erythropoietin
A.Hypertension
B.Increased ferritin
C.Increased potassium ion
D.Thrombocytosis
E.Decreased phosphate ion

ANS: A

Q.Aliskiren is
A.Renin antagonist
B.Renin synthesis inhibitor
C.Renin modulator
D.Renin releaser

ANS: B

Q.Most common cause of antibiotic induced colitis is due to
A.E.coli
B.Clostridium difficile
C.Salmonella
D.Campylobacter jejuni

ANS: B

Q.NADPH is required for
A.Gluconeogenesis
B.Fatty acid synthesis
C.Glycogenolysis
D.Glycolysis

ANS: D

Q.In a foetus,the insulin secretion begins by
A.3rd month
B.5th month
C.7 th month
D.9 th month

ANS: A

Q.Hanging drop preparation used for ?
A.Trichomonas vaginalis
B.Gardenella vaginalis
C.Candida albicans
D.Mobilincus

ANS: A

Q.Ion which is needed for conversion of prothrombin to thrombin is ?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Magnesium
D. Calcium

ANS: D

Q.Which of the following is not a bronchodilater ?
A.β2 agonist
B.Methylxanthines
C.Steroids
D.Anticholinergic

ANS: D

Q.Which drug can cause thyroid dysfunction is ?
A.Amiodarone
B.Ampicillin
C.Ibutilide
D.Acyclovir

ANS: A

Q.A woman assaulted by neighbour was brought to you in the emergency department with fractures of middle tooth. Injury was extended medially to the mouth and there was also contusion to bilateral leg. What is the nature of this injury?
A.Grievous injury
B.Simple injury
C.Dangerous injury
D.Assault

ANS: A

Q. A child develops blisters on exposure to sunlight.irregular dark spots on the skin are also found. He is very likely to have a defect in which of the following mechanism?
A. Nucleotide excision repair
B. Mismatch repair
C. Recombination repair
D. Thymine dimers

ANS: A

Q.Which of the following is a Rho-kinase inhibitor-
A.Fasudil
B.Nicorandil
C.Amiloride
D.Ranolazine

ANS: A 

Q. Recommended oral dose of vitamin A in postpartum female is-
A. 50,000 IU
B. 1,00,000 IU
C. 2,00,000 IU
D. 3,00,000 IU

ANS: C

Q.Staining characteristic used for demonstration of Amyloid is?
A. Apple green with congo red under ordinary light
B. Apple green with congo red under polaried light
C. Pink with congo red under ordinary light
D. None

ANS: B

Q.A 55 year old male presents with renal failure. He gives a history of mild bone pains for the last 7 years. X-ray pelvis shows osteolytic lesion.serum electrophoresis reveals is M spike. Peripheral blood evalution showd a rouleaux formation of RBCs with 35% plasma cells. Bone marrow examination showed a increase in plasma cells with aberrant expression. The most likekly diagnosis is-
A. Monoclonal gamopathy of undetermined significance
B. Multiple myeloma
C. Smoldering multiple myeloma
D. Plasma

Ans:D

Raynaud's Phenomenon

Raynaud’s phenomenon!
This phenomenon is essentially a vasospastic disorder (blood vessels tighten or close) causing discoloration of the fingers, toes, and occasionally other extremities.
The cause of the phenomenon is unknown, but it is a disorder characterized by cold or stress-induced hyperreactivity of the digital arterial smooth muscle, leading to episodic vasospasm in the fingers and toes, the body parts that are usually most susceptible to cold injury. 
Subsequently, it is the cause of finger ischemia that typically progresses from pallor (due to vasoconstriction) to cyanosis to erythema (red due to rapid blood reflow), and accompanied by pain.
In the image, a clear line of demarcation exists between the ischemic and unaffected areas.
These effects are reversible, and they must be distinguished from irreversible causes of ischemia such as vasculitis or thrombosis. Rarely, tissue necrosis occurs distal to the affected vessel, usually in the periphery of the vasculature.
Drug treatment is normally with a calcium channel blocker, frequently nifedipine to prevent arterioconstriction.
Patient education is the cornerstone of management, with patients being advised to avoid cold exposure, maintain the warmth of the whole body (i.e. not just wearing gloves and socks), cease smoking, avoid sympathomimetic medications, and avoid emotional stress where possib

Aorta

The aorta is the largest artery in the body, initially being an inch wide in diameter. It receives the cardiac output from the left ventricle and supplies the body with oxygenated blood via the systemic circulation.

The aorta can be divided into four sections: the ascending aorta, the aortic arch, the thoracic (descending) aorta and the abdominal aorta. It terminates at the level of L4 by bifurcating into the left and right common iliac arteries. The aorta classified as a large elastic artery, and more information on its internal structure can be found 

In this article we will look at the anatomy of the aorta – its anatomical course, branches and clinical correlation

Ascending Aorta

The ascending aorta arises from the aortic orifice from the left ventricle and ascends to become the aortic arch. It is 2 inches long in length and travels with the pulmonary trunk in the pericardial sheath.

Branches

The left and right aortic sinuses are dilations in the ascending aorta, located at the level of the aortic valve. They give rise to the left and right coronary arteries that supply the myocardium.

Aortic Arch

The aortic arch is a continuation of the ascending aorta and begins at the level of the second sternocostal joint. It arches superiorly, posteriorly and to the left before moving inferiorly.

The aortic arch ends at the level of the T4 vertebra. The arch is still connected to the pulmonary trunk by the ligamentum arteriosum (remnant of the foetal ductus arteriosus).

Branches

There are three major branches arising from the aortic arch. Proximal to distal:

• Brachiocephalic trunk: The first and largest branch that ascends laterally to split into the right common carotid and right subclavian arteries. These arteries supply the right side of the head and neck, and the right upper limb.

• Left common carotid artery: Supplies the left side of the head and neck.

• Left subclavian artery: Supplies the left upper limb.

Thoracic Aorta

The thoracic (descending) aorta spans from the level of T4 to T12. Continuing from the aortic arch, it initially begins to the left of the vertebral column but approaches the midline as it descends. It leaves the thorax via the aortic hiatus in the diaphragm, and becomes the abdominal aorta.

Branches

In descending order:

• Bronchial arteries: Paired visceral branches arising laterally to supply bronchial and peribronchial tissue and visceral pleura. However, most commonly, only the paired left bronchial artery arises directly from the aorta whilst the right branches off usually from the third posterior intercostal artery.

• Mediastinal arteries: Small arteries that supply the lymph glands and loose areolar tissue in the posterior mediastinum.

• Oesophageal arteries: Unpaired visceral branches arising anteriorly to supply the oesophagus.

• Pericardial arteries: Small unpaired arteries that arise anteriorly to supply the dorsal portion of the pericardium.

• Superior phrenic arteries: Paired parietal branches that supply the superior portion of the diaphragm.

• Intercostal and subcostal arteries: Small paired arteries that branch off throughout the length of the posterior thoracic aorta. The 9 pairs of intercostal arteries supply the intercostal spaces, with the exception of the first and second (they are supplied by a branch from the subclavian artery). The subcostal arteries supply the flat abdominal wall muscle

  Abdominal Aorta

  The abdominal aorta is a continuation of the thoracic aorta beginning at the level of the T12 vertebrae. It is approximately 13cm long and ends at the level of the L4 vertebra. At this level, the aorta terminates by bifurcating into the right and left common iliac arteries that supply the lower body.
  Branches
  In descending order:
  • Inferior phrenic arteries: Paired parietal arteries arising posteriorly at the level of T12. They supply the diaphragm.
  • Coeliac artery: A large, unpaired visceral artery arising anteriorly at the level of T12. It is also known as the celiac trunk and supplies the liver, stomach, abdominal oesophagus, spleen, the superior duodenum and the superior pancreas.
  • Superior mesenteric artery: A large, unpaired visceral artery arising anteriorly, just below the celiac artery. It supplies the distal duodenum, jejuno-ileum, ascending colon and part of the transverse colon. It arises at the lower level of L1.
  • Middle suprarenal arteries: Small paired visceral arteries that arise either side posteriorly at the level of L1 to supply the adrenal glands.
  • Renal arteries: Paired visceral arteries that arise laterally at the level between L1 and L2. They supply the kidneys.
  • Gonadal arteries: Paired visceral arteries that arise laterally at the level of L2. Note that the male gonadal artery is referred to as the testicular artery and in females, the ovarian artery.
  • Inferior mesenteric artery: A large, unpaired visceral artery that arises anteriorly at the level of L3. It supplies the large intestine from the splenic flexure to the upper part of the rectum.
  • Median sacral artery: An unpaired parietal artery that arises posteriorly at the level of L4 to supply the coccyx, lumbar vertebrae and the sacrum.
  • Lumbar arteries: There are four pairs of parietal lumbar arteries that arise posterolaterally between the levels of L1 and L4 to supply the abdominal wall and spinal cord.

Inside bone and cortex

Inside your bone - cortex and medulla!! 🦴
Bone forms an important component of our skeleton. Because of its rigidity and hardness, it provides the strength and form necessary to keep human body in its shape, and protects the delicate organs vital for life, for example the skull protects the brain and the ribcage protects heart and lungs.

There are two types of bone tissue: compact (cortical) and spongy (medullary).
The names imply that the two types differ in density, or how tightly the tissue is packed together.

Cortical bone contains haversian systems (osteons), which are packed tightly together to form what appears to be a solid mass.
They contain a central Haversian canal surrounded by osseous tissue in a concentric lamellar pattern.
Osteonic canals contain blood vessels that are parallel to the long axis of the bone. These blood vessels interconnect, by way of perforating canals, with vessels on the surface of the bone.
The outermost layer (between the outer surface of the bone and soft tissue) is periosteum and the innermost layer (between compact bone and the medullary space containing spongiosa) is endosteum.
The thickness of the cortex is from subperiosteal deposition of bone. In children, the periosteal layer loosely adheres to the cortex. The periosteum becomes thicker, vascular, and active with age and increased activity.

Spongy (cancellous) bone is lighter and less dense than compact bone. Spongy bone consists of plates (trabeculae) and bars of bone adjacent to small, irregular cavities that contain red bone marrow. The canaliculi connect to the adjacent cavities, instead of a central haversian canal, to receive their blood supply. It may appear that the trabeculae are arranged in a haphazard manner, but they are organized to provide maximum strength similar to braces that are used to support a building. The trabeculae of spongy bone follow the lines of stress and can realign if the direction of stress changes.

Mcq part 5

Mcq part 5

Q.Probiotics, which are cultures of potentially beneficial gut microflora bacteria, have been studied in the primary prevention of which of the following diseases?
A. Celiac disease
B. Atopic dermatitis
C. Psoriasis
D. Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma
E. Asthma

ANS: B

Q.A potentially dangerous side effect of spironolactone is:
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hyponatremia
E. Hypernatremia

ANS: B

Q.Narrowband UVB is effective for psoriasis and can be used in pregnancy and in childhood. It is also less carcinogenic than PUVA. The wavelength of narrowband UVB is:
A. 311-312nm
B. 315-317nm
C. 300-302nm
D. 318-320nm
E. 317-319nm

ANS: A

Q.Fluorescent UVA bulbs used for phototesting or PUVA therapy have a peak emission at:
A. 254 nm
B. 311 nm
C. 312 nm
D. 352 nm
E. 468 nm

ANS: D

Q.What bacteria may play a role in the pathogenesis of Morphea?
A. B. burgdorferi
B. H. pylori
C. E. coli
D. S. aureus
E. S. enteritidis

ANS: A

Q.Which HLA type is more commonly associated with balnitis circinata ?
A. HLA-B7
B. HLA-B15
C. HLA-B27
D. HLA-B51
E. HLA-DR4

ANS: C

Q.Human orf, also known as ecthyma contagiosum, was diagnosed in a 43 year old farmer by an astute resident dermatologist. Patient presented with a dome shaped, firm bulla with an umbilicated crust. Which of the following virus is responsible?
A. Pox virus
B. HHV-8
C. Parapox virus
D. HPV 5,8
E. Mycobacterium bovis

ANS: C

Q.A child presents with a 1 cm yellow-red nodule on the face. Pathology shows Touton giant cells.
What is the most frequent site of extracutaneous involvement in this disease?
A. Eye
B. Lung
C. Bone
D. CNS
E. Visceral

ANS: A

Q.Mast cells are derived from bone marrow ____+ cells?
A. CD3
B. CD6
C. CD20
D. CD34
E. CD68

ANS: D

Q.Sebaceous glands:
A. Respond to chemical stimuli such as hormones
B. Respond to cholinergic neural activity, exclusively
C. Respond to adrenergic neural activity, exclusively
D. Respond to both adrenergic and cholinergic stimuli
E. Respond to the local release of cytokines from inflammatory cells

ANS: A

Q.Retinoids upregulate transcription of which types of collagen?
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 1 and 7
D. 3 and 7
E. 4 and 7

ANS: C

Q.Defects in what kind of structural protein lead to pyloric atresia associated with junctional
epidermolysis bullosa:
A. Collagen
B. Elastin
C. Loricrin
D. Integrin
E. Plectin

ANS: D

Q.Meibomian glands are:
A. Eccrine glands localized to the vermillion
border of the lips
B. Sebaceous glands found on the areola of the
breast
C. Sebaceous glands found on the eyelids
D. Apocrine glands found in the anogenital
regions

ANS: C

Q.Regarding the stratum germinativum (basale):
A. Intermediate filaments in basal cells insert
into only hemidesmosomes
B. Keratins 1 and 10 are expressed
C. Not all basal cells have the potential to
divide
D. Microfilaments assist in downward
movement of cells
E. Plectins regulate adhesion and initiation of
differentiation.

ANS: C

Q.Which of the following cells are required for wound healing?
A. Neutrophil
B. Macrophage
C. Eosinophil
D. Langerhans cell
E. Lymphocyte

ANS: B

Q.Which of the following is true regarding BPAg1?
A. It is pathogenic in cicatricial pemphigoid
B. It is a member of the plakin family
C. It is pathogenic in pemphigoid gestationis
D. It is not pathogenic in paraneoplastic
pemphigus
E. It coprecipitates with plakoglobin

ANS: B

Q.The antibody target in ocular cicatricial pemphigoid is also mutated in:
A. Junctional epidermolysis bullosa, Herlitz
type
B. Recessive dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa
C. Junctional epidermolysis bullosa with
myotonic dystrophy
D. Dominant dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa
E. Junctional epidermolysis bullosa with
pyloric atresia

ANS: E